Discussion:
Why do we have "The LORD" in our bibles rather than "Yahweh"?
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b t
2006-02-02 08:30:06 UTC
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Why do we have "The LORD" in our bibles rather than Yahweh?

This is a very common question.

It all began with a Jewish tradition called the "ineffable name"
doctrine.

Jews, for various reasons, started to substitute His Name with the
Hebrew title "Adonai".=A0

Adonai is the Hebrew word for "Lord".

This information can be easily verified in many Bible dictionaries and
various encyclopedias.

For instance, the Encyclopedia Britannica states:


QUOTE "

Yahweh, the God of the Israelites, his name being revealed to Moses as
four Hebrew CONSONANTS (YHWH) CALLED THE TETRAGRAMMATON.

AFTER THE EXILE (6TH CENTURY BC), and especially from the 3rd century BC
on, Jews ceased to use the name Yahweh for two reasons.

As Judaism became a universal religion through its proselytizing in the
Greco-Roman world, the more common noun elohim, meaning "god," tended to
replace Yahweh to demonstrate the universal sovereignty of Israel's God
over all others.

At the same time, the divine name was increasingly regarded as too
sacred to be uttered;

it was thus replaced vocally in the synagogue ritual by the Hebrew word
Adonai ("My Lord"), which was translated as Kyrios ("Lord") in the
Septuagint, the Greek version of the Old Testament.

UNQUOTE "


We see in the above "quote" that Jews started to vocally replace the
name "Yahweh" with "Adonai" (Lord) for two reasons:

1. It was beginning to be believed that His Name was too sacred to be
uttered

2. They preferred to simply call Him "Elohim" rather than "Yahweh" to
demonstrate to the world that He is the only true Elohim.


While on the surface these reasons may seem honorable,

BUT they are very unscriptural.


They were and ARE attempts to improve on Yahweh's already perfect ways.


If Yahweh really WANTED a substitute, WHY would HE have placed His Name
there to begin with? ? ?


Though scripture says to follow Yahweh rather than man,

we find that nearly 7,000 times the most important Name of all is
replaced with a another word THAT MAN has chosen.

=A0
This tradition was not practiced by the Messiah or the apostles, but it
was adopted by some Christians during the early half of the 2nd Century
AD.

By the 4th century, this practice was well established and widely
practiced.

Jerome, a 4th century "Church Father" who authored the Latin Vulgate
version, substituted the name "Yahweh" throughout with the Latin word
"Dominus" (meaning "Lord").

The tradition of replacing Yahweh's name with "the Lord" continues to
this day.

Most English translations substitute the name Yahweh with "the LORD"

and translations into other languages will also commonly choose a title
meaning "Lord" in their own language.

More information on this can be found in the preface of many modern
bibles.
=A0
Linda Lee
2006-02-05 16:59:51 UTC
Permalink
b t,

Here is some info I found on the title of Lord (and other texts think
eheyeh should be Yesh-Hawa):

It is perhaps true that God was known only by the word "Elohim" from
Adam until Abraham. Abraham called God "Lord," ...in Hebrew - Adonai
(Genesis 18:3).

Yet God said in Exodus 6:3 he was revealed to Abraham as Elshaddai and
that by his name "Ehyeh" as given to Moses at the burning bush, he was
not made known to Abraham. It was because Abraham called God "Adonai"
that the Jews inserted this title meaning "Lord" into the scrolls at
every instance. "Ehyeh" was originally written after the revealing of
it at the burning bush. There, when Moses asked God about his name, God
said it was "Ehyeh asher Ehyeh" (translated I Am that I Am): and told
Moses, tell them that "Ehyeh" (or I AM) has sent you.

Since Moses wrote Genesis after he received the revelation of the new
name of "Ehyeh" we can assume that Moses inserted into the sacred
record the title "Adonai" or Lord, in such texts as Genesis 4:26. But
it must be noted that in Genesis 4:26 the word "began" - Strongs # 2490
in the Hebrew - really means to profane the name of God by calling upon
it in blasphemy. Noah had to put up with this prior to the flood.
What is being said here is that men from that time, or the time of
Enos, began to profane the name of God. Moses called God "Lord"
(Adonai) here and the word rightly should be "Lord" and not as some
backward interpolate, YHVH and then Yahweh.

There can be absolutely no use of the sacred name prior to Exodus
3:14-15 other than those names revealed. Those revealed prior to this
time were the names "God" (Elohim) and "Elshaddai" (God Almighty). Any
place the title "Lord" appears prior to Exodus 3:14-15, it is either an
interpolation or it must have the meaning of Adonai (Strongs #136,
113). In each case of Abraham using the title "Lord", as in Genesis
22:14, the word was not a substitute of the tetragrammaton to then be
translated Jehovah or Yahweh.

Abraham had to say "Adonai jireh" (Lord I see, NOT Jehovah will
provide). This is in harmony with the fact that until Moses received
the sacred name "Ehyeh" at the burning bush, he, Abraham, Isaac, and
Jacob knew the Deity only as God, Elshaddai, and Adonai.

One fact remaining: the word "Adonai" was not a name; it was a title;
therefore God could say to Moses that he was known to Abraham, Isaac,
and Jacob, by the name of Elshaddai, and by his name "Ehyeh or Ehjeh"
he was not made known to them (Exodus 6:3).

Also, concerning the I AM as eheyeh:

The causative theme of hayah (translated as the AM in I AM) is found in
no Semitic language, except the late Syriac, but is replaced by that of
some other root. Those, therefore who still regard it as causative
refer it to hawah, found once in Hebrew in the form hawa "fell"; they
interpret this as "he who causes to fall". (Robertson Smith; cf. Arab.
"haway". Ency. Brit 1958 Ed. Vol. 12 p. 996.

In Aramaic, a language closely related to Hebrew, "to be" actually is
hawa. - Ency. Brit. 11 Ed. Vol. 15 p. 321. (The same in the Chaldean
language. And Strong's reveals Yesh to be an obsolete word meaning I
and 'to exist' that was used as a copula with (coupled with) the
Hebrew/Chaldean word also meaning to exist and translated AM as in I
AM.)

One further note, Hebrew scripture did not employ vowel letters. And
the consonants of Yesh-hawa (I AM) are very similar to Yeshuwa`,
Yeshua, Yeshuah, the name of the Messiah.

Here is a link with info on the name (on page four of that link it says
the sacred name of God contained the S or SH sound and that YHVH or
YHWH was a code for the sacred name of God (different pages are found
at the bottom of the page):

http://members.tripod.com/CarlosEnrique/GODNAME02.html

More on YHVH -- Because the Hebrew language does not employ vowels in
its written form, the correct pronunciation of the Ineffable Name of
God was lost & not rediscovered until about 300AD by the Kabbalists who
gave it the title Tetragrammaton, "the word of four letters," & "the
square name," or more simply, "the square." At that time the
Shem-ha-meforash became represented by the simple form YHVH. - Charles
Ponce, Kabbalah, p. 175.
From Kabbalah - HAWA - YHVH - "Originally, these four
consonants [in YHWH] represented the four members of the Heavenly
Family: Y represented El the Father; H was Asherah the Mother; W
corresponded to He the Son; and H was the Daughter Anath. In accordance
with the royal traditions of the time and region, God's mysterious
bride, the Matronit, was also reckoned to be his sister. In the Jewish
cult of the Cabbala God's dual male-female image was perpetuated.
Meanwhile other sects perceived the Shekinah or Matronit as the female
presence of God on Earth. The divine marital chamber was the sanctuary
of the Jerusalem Temple, but from the moment the Temple was destroyed,
the Matronit was destined to roam the Earth while the male aspect of
Jehovah was left to rule the heavens alone." - Laurence Gardner,
Bloodline of the Holy Grail, p. 18.

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